TeaCider24 12,403 Posted March 6, 2021 Share Posted March 6, 2021 Just now, Neverbefore said: Savilles foot is only there because he's made a lunging tackle that didnt get the ball. He only didn't touch the ball because he was immediately booted by their player. I wouldn't be arguing this point if Saville had wiped out a player running with the ball, but Saville has intercepted a pass before that player has touched the ball in any way and is then fouled. Link to post Share on other sites
TeaCider24 12,403 Posted March 6, 2021 Share Posted March 6, 2021 (edited) 2 minutes ago, Changing Times said: No, he doesn't. He kicks the ball. Saville's boot is already past the ball, in the air, cos he misses the ball. He kicked through Saville, a foul on Saville. 1 Link to post Share on other sites
Changing Times 12,220 Posted March 6, 2021 Share Posted March 6, 2021 Just now, billsykes said: Saville hasn't touched the ball and never does. Link to post Share on other sites
DanFromDownSouth 1,706 Posted March 6, 2021 Share Posted March 6, 2021 Just now, TeaCider24 said: He kicked Saville. After Bidwell hits ball. Link to post Share on other sites
Changing Times 12,220 Posted March 6, 2021 Share Posted March 6, 2021 Just now, TeaCider24 said: He kicked Saville. No, he kicked the ball first mate. If Saville touched the ball at any point it could be foul the other way but he doesn't. Their lad is going to kick the ball, Saville has simply missed it. Therefore it's a foul and a penalty. Link to post Share on other sites
wilsoncgp 9,230 Posted March 6, 2021 Share Posted March 6, 2021 There's no proving anything either way with stills of it. The only thing I can say for sure is Saville doesn't get the ball of his own volition, he misses it. If he touches the ball at all, it's because Bidwell has moved his foot in the direction of it. If the question is what does Bidwell hit first, Saville or the ball, then we're getting into such marginal granular detail that it's frankly impossible to blame the ref either way. Link to post Share on other sites
Neverbefore 10,695 Posted March 6, 2021 Share Posted March 6, 2021 Just now, wilsoncgp said: There's no proving anything either way with stills of it. The only thing I can say for sure is Saville doesn't get the ball of his own volition, he misses it. If he touches the ball at all, it's because Bidwell has moved his foot in the direction of it. If the question is what does Bidwell hit first, Saville or the ball, then we're getting into such marginal granular detail that it's frankly impossible to blame the ref either way. Even if he kicks savilles foot first it's a penalty. Saville is impeding the player from taking a shot without playing the ball. It's the very definition of a foul. Link to post Share on other sites
TeaCider24 12,403 Posted March 6, 2021 Share Posted March 6, 2021 (edited) 2 minutes ago, wilsoncgp said: There's no proving anything either way with stills of it. The only thing I can say for sure is Saville doesn't get the ball of his own volition, he misses it. If he touches the ball at all, it's because Bidwell has moved his foot in the direction of it. If the question is what does Bidwell hit first, Saville or the ball, then we're getting into such marginal granular detail that it's frankly impossible to blame the ref either way. You can completely blame the referee, given he rightly gave a corner, noticed the £50 notes stuffed in his shorts and then changed his mind and gave a penalty instead. 2 Link to post Share on other sites
BoroSmoggie 2,679 Posted March 6, 2021 Share Posted March 6, 2021 Wait. Did Cooper just say the penalty they had midweek against Stoke was a certain penalty? 1 1 Link to post Share on other sites
TeaCider24 12,403 Posted March 6, 2021 Share Posted March 6, 2021 Just now, Neverbefore said: Even if he kicks savilles foot first it's a penalty. Saville is impeding the player from taking a shot without playing the ball. It's the very definition of a foul. The player wasn't in control of the ball, and only touched the ball via a foul. Link to post Share on other sites
SmogDane 4,052 Posted March 6, 2021 Share Posted March 6, 2021 I blame Bettinelli.. he should have saved the penna.. Randolph would 2 Link to post Share on other sites
BegSteeleOrBoro 55 Posted March 6, 2021 Share Posted March 6, 2021 3 minutes ago, Changing Times said: No, he kicked the ball first mate. If Saville touched the ball at any point it could be foul the other way but he doesn't. Their lad is going to kick the ball, Saville has simply missed it. Therefore it's a foul and a penalty. So if a player takes a shot then runs into another player then they get a foul - because that’s the logical extrapolation of what you are saying. Link to post Share on other sites
DurhamRed 2,043 Posted March 6, 2021 Share Posted March 6, 2021 4 minutes ago, Changing Times said: Saville hasn't touched the ball and never does. Yeah but should of been dismissed to even up the earlier incorrect decision for our legit goal Link to post Share on other sites
Neverbefore 10,695 Posted March 6, 2021 Share Posted March 6, 2021 Just now, TeaCider24 said: The player wasn't in control of the ball, and only touched the ball via a foul. Saville is the one who lunged in. Their player had a clean strike of the ball it saville hadn't dived in, therefore if saville doesn't play the ball he's impeding the striker illegally. This isn't hard stuff to comprehend. Link to post Share on other sites
TeaCider24 12,403 Posted March 6, 2021 Share Posted March 6, 2021 Just now, SmogDane said: I blame Bettinelli.. he should have saved the penna.. Randolph would The one criticism you can give to Randolph is he never once got close to saving a penalty for us. Link to post Share on other sites
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