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Swansea vs Boro 2-1 (Morsy)


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3 minutes ago, wilsoncgp said:

There's no proving anything either way with stills of it. The only thing I can say for sure is Saville doesn't get the ball of his own volition, he misses it. If he touches the ball at all, it's because Bidwell has moved his foot in the direction of it. If the question is what does Bidwell hit first, Saville or the ball, then we're getting into such marginal granular detail that it's frankly impossible to blame the ref either way.

I've already proven it conclusively.  If people just listened to me more things would be much better all round.

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K Look, he magicked him out of the water!

Quest will usually side with the ref from what I've seen over the past few years, so the fact they unequivocally didn't in this instance says it all to me.

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14 minutes ago, Changing Times said:

You promised us a win you swine! 😡

💔

Yes I didn’t allow for a corrupt referee in my calculation of a win 🤷‍♂️

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Despite todays decisions,i certainly dont want VAR to be introduced into the Championship,It has completely destroyed the game in my eyes. All spontaneous celebration is gone.Lets all wait a minute or two to  be sure there was no infringements in the preceeding 5minutes! Not for me thanks, 

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1 minute ago, BegSteeleOrBoro said:

So if a player takes a shot then runs into another player then they get a foul - because that’s the logical extrapolation of what you are saying.

If a player slides in to make a challenge and doesn't get the ball but gets the opposing player then it's a foul.  Their player didn't run into Saville any more than Saville slid into him, and the problem for Saville is he didn't get to the ball but their player did 🤷‍♂️

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1 minute ago, Changing Times said:

If a player slides in to make a challenge and doesn't get the ball but gets the opposing player then it's a foul.  Their player didn't run into Saville any more than Saville slid into him, and the problem for Saville is he didn't get to the ball but their player did 🤷‍♂️

He didn't get the opposition player.

The opposition player booted him.

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Just now, wilsoncgp said:

Watching it back, I'm not even sure Saville realises Bidwell is there which is perhaps worse than whatever happened after.

And the referee clearly had his mind changed by an official in an even worse position, who had even less chance of seeing what occurred.

It's a shambles.

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When you watch this one in real time, the ref completely just blows his whistle because there lad falls to the floor, and it’s so obvious. He literally blows because there lad falls on the floor with his arms up in the air. 
Makes me feel sick.

Swansea player goes down holding his ankle and tries to con the ref. Just like they did midweek against Stoke. Copper not batting an eye against is equally as embarrassing. He actually thought the one they had midweek was a penalty 🤯

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1 minute ago, Changing Times said:

If a player slides in to make a challenge and doesn't get the ball but gets the opposing player then it's a foul.  Their player didn't run into Saville any more than Saville slid into him, and the problem for Saville is he didn't get to the ball but their player did 🤷‍♂️

There’s a really good breakdown here https://sports.stackexchange.com/questions/10719/in-soccer-can-it-be-a-foul-even-if-the-player-gets-to-the-ball-first

 

if their player makes contact with Saville, then it can only be a foul if careless, reckless or using excessive force. I don’t think that is the case here.

anyway - we were never going up without some decent strikers, so I’m not too gutted. Will be interesting to see whoWarnock signs over the summer. 

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Just now, TeaCider24 said:

He didn't get the opposition player.

The opposition player booted him.

Again, he didn't.  The player boots the ball, Saville doesn't boot the ball.  Therefore he has committed a foul.  I don't really see what the issue is with that?  If you make a challenge and don't get the ball, while the other player does, then you have committed a foul.  You can't slide in between the player and ball but not get the ball especially when that player clearly does.  

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1 minute ago, Changing Times said:

Again, he didn't.  The player boots the ball, Saville doesn't boot the ball.  Therefore he has committed a foul.  I don't really see what the issue is with that?  If you make a challenge and don't get the ball, while the other player does, then you have committed a foul.  You can't slide in between the player and ball but not get the ball especially when that player clearly does.  

If you get the ball by booting through the foot of an opposition player, you have fouled that player.

But this argument is going nowhere so I'm done with it.

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